Live Weakened Polio Virus Can Be Used Directly in a(N)
i
i) All of the following are mostly used in vaccines EXCEPT
A) toxoids.
B) parts of bacterial cells.
C) live, adulterate viruses.
D) inactivated viruses.
E) antibodies.
2
2) Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) agglutination
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) hemolysis
E) hemagglutination-inhibition
3
3) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may accept been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
Eastward) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
4
4) In an agglutination test, eight series dilutions to determine antibiotic titer were ready. Tube #1 independent a ane:two dilution; tube #2, a 1:iv, etc. If tube #half-dozen is the final tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) half-dozen
B) i:6
C) 64
D) 1:32
E) 32
5
five) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 pct sensitivity and xc percent specificity. This ways that the test
A) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has ten percentage false positive results.
B) detects 5 per centum of the true positive samples and has ninety percent false positive results.
C) detects xc percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 pct of the true positive samples and has ninety per centum faux positive results.
E) detects five percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
vi
6) Which of the post-obit are sources of antibodies for serological testing?
A) vaccinated animals
B) cells producing monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and cells producing monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, cells producing monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
7
vii) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is chosen a(north)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) atmospheric precipitation reaction.
8
8) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(north)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
9
9) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red claret cells to indicate an antigen—antibiotic reaction is chosen a(northward)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
10
x) A Deoxyribonucleic acid plasmid encoding a protein antigen from Westward Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) subunit vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) live whole-agent vaccine.
eleven
11) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines confronting diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(north)
A) TCcell response.
B) immune complex.
C) dendritic cell proliferation.
D) antibody response confronting these bacterial toxins.
Due east) antibody response against gram-positive leaner.
12
12) The clumping of examination red blood cells indicates a negative exam result (no antibodies against the virus in the patient's serum) in the
A) direct agglutination examination.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) complement-fixation test.
D) atmospheric precipitation exam.
East) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
xiii
xiii) What blazon of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acrid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
fourteen
14) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(northward)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
fifteen
15) What blazon of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acrid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
16
16) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibiotic test.
C) direct agglutination examination.
D) direct ELISA test.
Eastward) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
17
17) A exam used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient'southward pharynx swab is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
E) indirect ELISA test.
18
18) A examination used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibiotic test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
19
19) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to observe the fetal hormone HCG in a adult female's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A) straight agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
East) atmospheric precipitation reaction
20
20) Which of the following is a test to decide a patient'south blood blazon by mixing the patient's reddish blood cells with antisera?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
21
21) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
East) precipitation reaction
22
22) A patient's serum, Mycobacterium, republic of guinea squealer complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a exam tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?
A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) Hemagglutination occurs.
C) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) No hemolysis occurs.
23
23) A vaccine confronting HIV proteins made by a genetically-engineered vaccinia virus that has infected a eukaryotic cell line is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
Eastward) toxoid vaccine.
24
24) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acrid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-amanuensis vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
25
25) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an)
A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B prison cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.
E) myeloma cell with a virus.
26
26) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?
A) Patients A and B
B) Patients B and C
C) Patients A and C
D) Patients C and D
E) Patients A and D
27
27) In Tabular array xviii.1, who is almost probable protected from the illness, equally observed by the test results over time?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
28
28) In Tabular array 18.i, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
29
29) Which component in Figure eighteen.1 came from the patient in this indirect ELISA test?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Due east) e
thirty
30) Figure 18.1 is an analogy of a(an)
A) negative indirect ELISA test.
B) positive indirect ELISA test.
C) complement fixation examination.
D) hemagglutination examination.
E) atmospheric precipitation test.
31
31) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and illness treatments because they
A) are highly specific.
B) tin be produced in large quantities.
C) comprise a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they tin be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they comprise a mixture of antibodies.
32
32) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth stride?
A) A B jail cell is activated to produce antibodies.
B) Culture the hybridoma in a selective medium.
C) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
D) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.
33
33) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(north)
A) toxoid.
B) monoclonal antibody.
C) vaccine.
D) immunosuppressive.
Eastward) nucleoside analog.
34
34) Alive weakened polio virus tin can be used directly in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-amanuensis vaccine.
B) adulterate whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
35
35) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) adulterate whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
36
36) Dead Bordetella pertussis can exist used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-amanuensis vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-amanuensis vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
East) toxoid vaccine.
37
37) Isolated and purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen can exist used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
38
38) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient'south urine, what is the third pace in the test procedure?
A) substrate for the enzyme is added
B) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug beingness tested is added
C) the patient's urine sample is diluted
D) antibody against the drug beingness tested is added
39
39) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA examination?
A) substrate for the enzyme
B) antigen
C) antihuman immune serum
D) antibodies against the antigen
40
40) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) neutralization
D) indirect ELISA
E) direct fluorescent-antibody
41
41) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) atmospheric precipitation
D) flow cytometry
E) neutralization
42
42) Which of the following is Non an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
A) They elicit lifelong immunity.
B) They stimulate past prison cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They require few or no booster immunizations.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
43
43) In an immunodiffusion examination to diagnose the fungal disease histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets fabric diffusing from a second well. In this exam process, what is the well-nigh probable identity of the cloth in the second well?
A) antibodies
B) a purified fungal antigen
C) entire fungal cells
D) a purified protozoan antigen
E) cherry blood cells
44
44) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient'south serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive examination, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a 2nd well. What blazon of exam is this?
A) an agglutination reaction
B) a atmospheric precipitation reaction
C) a complement-fixation test
D) an indirect ELISA test
E) a direct ELISA exam
45
45) Which of the following statements almost measles is Fake?
A) It is a serious disease.
B) Information technology is preventable past vaccination.
C) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and decease.
46
one) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.
47
two) In a vaccine preparation, the term "adulterate" means that the agent does Not replicate.
48
3) An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an allowed response against the proteins encoded past the Deoxyribonucleic acid is an example of a subunit vaccine.
49
4) Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses.
50
5) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.
51
six) A positive complement-fixation exam is indicated past the lysis of the sheep red claret cells added in the indicator stage of the test.
52
7) The home pregnancy examination kit is an example of a direct ELISA.
53
8) Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins.
54
9) A highly specific diagnostic test volition be unlikely to point a positive result if a specimen beingness tested is a true negative.
55
x) Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens.
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